04-06-2023 Code-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST - 01 Time: 3 Hrs 20 Mins.

(KMD07, KNMD01, KAMD01)

Topics covered:
Physics : Mathematical Tools, Vectors
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany : Cell- The Unit of Life
Zoology : Biomolecules

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
(viii) Use of Calculator is not allowed.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer: (3) 90°, 135°, 45° (4) 90°, 60°, 30°
SECTION - A 3. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5 iˆ + 0.5 ˆj + ckˆ,
1. Choose the correct statement from the following. then the value of c is approximately
(1) ( A + B ) is equal to (B + A ) (1) 0.70 (2) 0.20

(2) A vector added with its negative vector (3) 0.50 (4) 0.25
results into null vector 4. If a vector p is making angles ,  and 
(3) A unit vector does not have any unit respectively with the x, y and z axes, then
(4) All of these cos 2  + cos 2  + cos 2  is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 1
2. Given that A + B + C = 0 . Out of three vectors
two are equal in magnitude and magnitude of (3) 2 (4) 3
third vector is 2 times that of either of two 5. Two vectors A and B are given as A = i + 2 j
having equal magnitude. Then angle between
vectors are given by and B = 2kˆ . The scalar product of A and B is
(1) 90°, 135°, 135° (2) 90°, 45°, 45° (1) 6 (2) 2

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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

17. The force F varies with x as F = Kx – x2. The (1) Slope is +ve constant
maximum value of F is
(2) Slope decreases continuously

K2
(1) K2 (2) (3) Slope is –ve constant
2
(4) Slope increases continuously
K2
(3) (4) Zero 4

 x dx
4 24. The value of the integral I = is
0
18. The curve of the equation y = ax + bx2 is a

(1) Straight line (2) Parabola (1) 4 (2) 6

(3) Circle (4) Hyperbola
(3) 8 (4) 16
19. If radius of a circle increases by 20%, the
percentage increase in the area enclosed by it 25. The speed (in m/s) of a particle varies with time t

will be  9 
as v =  t 3 – t 2 + 6t  , where t is in second. The
 2 
(1) 40% (2) 44%
initial acceleration is
(3) 60% (4) 80%
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
20. Which of the following graphs correctly
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
represents the variation of area A of a square
with its side x? 26. If the acceleration a(t) varies with time as

(1) Straight line (2) Parabola a(t) = 2t + 5, then graph between a(t) and t is

(3) Circle (4) Hyperbola a(t)

a(t)
21. A function V varies with x as V = – ax2 . If another
 dV 
function E is defined as E = –   then, the t t
 dx  O
(1) O (2)
value of E at the point (1, 1) will be a(t) a(t)

(1) 2a (2) – 2a
t
(3) a (4) – a t
O O
(3) (4)
22. The approximate value of (1 + 0.003)9 is
(1) 1.27 (2) 1.0029
27. A pushing force of 50 N acts on a block at an
(3) 1.0027 (4) 1.027 angle of 30° with horizontal. The respective
23. Which of the following is the correct statement horizontal and vertical components of force will
be
about the slope of the curve?
(1) 25 3 N, 25 N
y (2) 25 N, 25 3 N
(3) 25 N, 25 N
(4) 50 N, 0 N
x 28. Which of the following statement is true?
O

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

(1) Vector addition is commutative (3) B is parallel to A

(2) Subtraction of two vectors is commutative (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Both addition and subtraction are 37. Which of the following pair cannot be rectangular
commutative
components of a vector of magnitude 20 N?
(4) Both addition and subtraction are not
commutative (1) 12 N and 16 N (2) 14 N and 2 51 N
29. The maximum number of components in which a (3) 12 2 N and 4 7 N (4) 18 N and 2 N
vector can be resolved are
(1) 2 (2) 3 38. A vector A = 2i + 3 j . It is given that
(3) 4 (4) Infinite
A + B = 2i + 3 j . Then B is
30. If vectors iˆ − 2 jˆ + 6kˆ and iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3akˆ are equal
vectors, then the value of a is (1) 2i + 3 j (2) Null vector
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4i + 6 j (4) 3i + 2 j
(3) –3 (4) 4
31. A vector in x-y plane has a magnitude 30 units 39. A + B + C can also be written as
and makes an angle 37° with the x-axis. The
(1) C + B + A (2) B − C − A
vector can be written as
(3) A + B − C (4) − A − B − C
(1) 24i + 24 j (2) 18i + 24 j
40. Resultant of two unit vectors is also a unit vector.
(3) 18i + 18 j (4) 24i + 18 j The magnitude of their vector difference is

1 (1) 1 unit
32. If ki + j is a unit vector, then k can be equal to
2 (2) 3 units
3 1 (3) 3 units
(1) (2)
2 2
(4) 5 units
(3) 1 (4) 2

33. If | A + B | = | A | = | B | , then angle between A 41. The vectors ai + 2 j + 6k and 2i + 2 j + 6k are

equal vectors. The value of a is
and B will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 0° (2) 120°
(3) 4 (4) 6
(3) 45° (4) 60°
42. B is a vector having magnitude B(B  1). Then
SECTION - B
the unit vector along B is
34. Among the following identify the scalar quantity.
B
(1) Displacement (2) Velocity (1) BB (2)
B
(3) Energy (4) Acceleration
B
35. Magnitude of a unit vector is (3) B2B (4)
B
(1) One 43. Consider following two statements.
(2) Two a. Component of a vector can have a magnitude
(3) Three greater than the magnitude of the vector
itself.
(4) Zero
b. A vector can be divided by another vector.
36. It is given that B = −2 A , then
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Magnitude of B is twice that of A
(1) a only (2) b only
(2) B is anti parallel to A (3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b

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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

44. For two vectors A and B , it is given, that (1) –sin + cos
A + B = A = B , then angle between A and B is −1
(2)
(1) 90° (2) 30° (cos  +  sin )2
(3) 60° (4) 120°
sin  −  cos 
(3)
45. Magnitude of component of vector 2i + 6k along (cos  +  sin )2
y axis is
 cos  − sin 
(1) 6 (2) 1 (4)
(cos  +  sin )2
(3) 2 (4) Zero
49. The equation of a parabola is y = –x2. Which of
46. Which of the following operations is not defined
the following graph best represents the parabola?
for any vector A and an integer n?
y y
A
(1) (2) nA
n

(3) n2 A (4) n + A x x

47. Which of the following is correct plot for the curve

y = x2? (1) (2)
y y
y y

x x x x
O O

(1) (2) (3) (4)

y y 50. Which of the following is a solution of the
equation x2 – 10x – 24 = 0?
x x
O O
(1) x = 4
(3) (4) (2) x = 12
1 dy (3) x = 2
48. If y = , then the value of is
cos  +  sin  d (4) x = 6

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. If mass ratio of methane and carbon dioxide is 53. Equivalent weight of phosphoric acid in the given
2 : 3 then the ratio of their moles will be reaction is
(1) 11 : 6 (2) 2 : 3 H3PO 4 + NaOH ⎯⎯→ NaH2PO 4 + H2O
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 7 : 2
(1) 32.66 (2) 294
52. The number of molecules of gas present in 1cc of
gas at STP are (3) 49 (4) 98

NA NA
54. SI unit of amount of substance is
(1) (2)
22.4 22400 (1) Kilogram (2) Gram

22400 22.4 (3) Mole (4) Milligram

(3) (4) 55. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
NA NA

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

%w w(solute) 1000 m
(1) =  100 (2) m =
w w(solution) 1000 d − MM2

%w w(solute) 100 d
(2) =  100 (3) M =
v v(solution) MM2

(3) Molarity =
Gram per litre 1000 d − MM2
Mol. wt. (4) m =
1000 M
Normality
(4) Equivalent = N N
Volume (L ) 63. 100 ml of HCl, 50 ml of H2SO4 and 200 ml
10 2
56. Which of the following concentration term is N
of NaOH solutions are mixed and volume is
temperature independent? 10
(1) Normality (2) Molarity made one litre, then normality of resulting
solution and its nature will be
(3) Molality (4) Gram per litre
(1) 0.25 N and acidic
57. Maximum number of molecules are present in
(2) 0.015 N and acidic
(1) 256 g S8 (2) 124 g P4
(3) 4 g H2 (4) 22.4 L CO2 at STP (3) 0.45 N and basic

58. Statement-1:It two elements can combine to (4) 0.10 N and basic
form more than one compound, the masses of 64. What amount of Na2CO3 is dissolved in 250 ml
one element that combine with a fixed mass of aqueous solution to prepare semimolar solution?
the other element are in ratio of small whole (1) 2.65 g (2) 3.71 g
numbers. This is called law of multiple
(3) 13.25 g (4) 0.90 g
proportions.
65. Actual molecular mass of chlorine gas is
Statement-2: H2O and H2O2 follow law of
(1) 58.93 × 10–24 g
multiple proportions.
(2) 118.57 × 10–24 kg
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
(3) 58.93 × 10–24 kg
(2) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) 118.57 × 10–24 g
(3) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true 66. Volume of 32 gm O2 gas at STP is
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are true (1) 11.2 L (2) 44.8 L
59. The number of neutrons present in 7 mg of C14 is (3) 22.4 L (4) 5.6 L
(1) 2.4 × 1021 (2) 8.6 × 1022 67. An organic compound containing C = 40%;
(3) 1.9 × 1018 (4) 9.7 × 1020 H = 6.7% and O = 53.3%.If vapour density of
compound is 30 then molecular formula and
60. The amount of 25% pure CaCO3 required to empirical formula of the compound respectively is
obtain 11.2 litre CO2 at STP when reacts with
(1) C4H4O4 and CH2O (2) C2H2 and CH
H2SO4 is
(3) C2H2O2 and CHO (4) C2H4O2 and CH2O
(1) 100 g (2) 150 g
68. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) 180 g (4) 200 g
(1) Mass of one molecule of methane is 12 u
61. 16g of SOx occupies 5.6 L at STP. What is the (2) 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
value of x?
(3) Mole = Molarity × Volume of solution in litre
(1) 1 (2) 3
(4) Mole = Molality × Mass of solvent (kg)
(3) 0.5 (4) 2
69. The number of significant figure in 6.02 ×1023is
62. If M, m, d and M2 represent molarity, molality
(1) 3 (2) 4
density of solution in g/ml and molecular weight
of solute respectively then select the correct (3) 2 (4) 23
relation. 70. Which of the following is correct relation?
1000 M (1) 1 pm = 10–12 m
(1) m =
1000 d − MM2 (2) 1 g = 10–3 mg
(3) 1 nm = 10 cm
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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

(4) 1 Å = 10–8 m 80. What weight of 50% H2SO4 solution required to

71. An element, Y has two isotopes Y20
and Y22.
The react completely with 50 g of limestone?
percentage abundance of Y20 and Y22 are 90% (1) 98 g (2) 49 g
and 10% respectively.What is the average atomic
mass of element? (3) 24.5 g (4) 196 g
(1) 21.20 (2) 20.70 81. 21.6 gram of a coin containing silver is dissolved
(3) 20.20 (4) 21.00 in HNO3, when NaCl is added to this solution, all
silver is precipitated as AgCl. The weight of AgCl
72. 8.7 g MnO2 on reaction with HCl gives 0.224 litre
is found to be 14.35 g. Find percentage of silver
of Cl2 at STP. What is the percentage purity of
MnO2 (At wt. of Mn = 55)? in the coin. (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 and
Cl = 35.5)
(1) 20% (2) 30%
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 40% (4) 10%
73. If density of 2 M solution of Na2CO3 is 1.2 g/cm3 (3) 75% (4) 100%
then which of the following statement is correct? 82. The sodium salt of methyl orange has 7%
(1) Molality is more than molarity sodium. What is the minimum molecular mass of
(2) Molarity is more than molality the compound?
(3) Molarity and molality are same (1) 328.57 g (2) 238.26 g
(4) Normality is less than molarity (3) 422.25 g (4) 127.35 g
74. If mole fraction of NaOH in an aqueous solution 83. An amount of 0.4 mole of MgCl2 is mixed with 0.3
of NaOH is 0.2 then molality of solution is mole of K3PO4. The maximum number of moles
(1) 10.80 (2) 11.40 of KCl form are
(3) 8.65 (4) 13.89 (1) 0.6 (2) 0.5
75. Number of carbon atoms present in 90 g of (3) 0.3 (4) 0.8
glucose (C6H12O6) is 84. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 5 NA (2) 3 NA (1) A given compound always contains exactly
(3) 8 NA (4) 6 NA the same proportion of elements by weight

76. Number of urea molecules present in 10 ml of (2) According to Dalton, matter consists of
0.1 M urea solution is indivisible atoms
(3) Gases combine in the simple ratio of their
(1) 6.02 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1023
volume at same temperature and pressure
(3) 6.02 × 1022 (4) 6.02 × 1024
(4) Nuclear reactions follow the law of
77. 100 ml of 2M HCl solution is mixed with 200 ml of conservation of mass
3 M HCl solution and final volume of solution was
85. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a
made upto 1 litre. Calculate the molarity of final
substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass
solution.
percent of the solute.
(1) 1 M (2) 0.8 M
(1) 5% (2) 10%
(3) 2 M (4) 1.5 M
(3) 20% (4) 25%
78. 0.5 M H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to 10 litre. SECTION - B
Normality of the resulting solution is
86. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N
(1) Mass of solution = mass of solute + mass of
(3) 0.2 N (4) 2 N solvent
79. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate reacts with 40 ml of (2) Summation of mole fraction of all the
N components in a solution is always one
H2SO4 . The equivalent weight of metal
2 (3) Limiting reagent decides the amount of
carbonate is product formed during a chemical reaction
(1) 24 (2) 30 (4) Whenever a solution is diluted then the
(3) 42 (4) 56 number of moles of solute change

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

87. What is the charge on 32gram of O2–? d. Density (iv) g/ml

(1) 3.84 × 105 C (2) 3.84 × 104 C
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) 3.84 × 10–19 C (4) 3.84 × 10–38 C
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
88. If 6.3 g (COOH)2·2H2O is dissolved in 500 cm3
solution, then its molarity and normality (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
respectively are (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) 0.1, 0.2 (2) 0.1, 0.1 95. When 500ml of CO2 gas is passed through red
(3) 0.2, 0.1 (4) 0.3, 0.3 hot charcoal, the volume becomes 700ml. The
89. Volume occupied by one mole of water volume of CO2 converted into CO is
(density = 1g cm–3) is (1) 200ml (2) 300ml
(1) 3 × 10–23 cm3 (2) 18 cm3 (3) 350ml (4) 500ml
(3) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3 (4) 36 cm3 96 1dm3 is equal to
90. If temperature of water bath is 122 degree (1) 1ml (2) 100ml
Fahrenheit then the temperature in degree
Celsius scale will be (3) 1L (4) 1000L
(1) 60°C (2) 65°C 97. Correct scientific notation of 0.01324 is
(3) 50°C (4) 45°C (1) 13.24 × 10–3 (2) 1.324 × 10–3
91. Suppose the elements A and B combine to form (3) 132.4 ×10–4 (4) 1.324 × 10–2
two compounds AB2 and A3B2. When 0.2 mol of 98. Prefix femto is used for
AB2 weighs 10g and 0.1 mole of A3B2 weighs
11g, the atomic weights of A and B are (1) 10–15 (2) 10–10
(1) 40, 30 (2) 30, 40 (3) 1024 (4) 106
(3) 30, 10 (4) 10, 30 99. Molecular mass of SO3 is
92. If 56 g N2 and 64 g CH4 are mixed with 80 g SO3 (1) 32u (2) 80u
gas, then mole fraction of CH4 is (3) 64u (4) 48u
(1) 0.52 (2) 0.57
100. Statement-1: During a chemical reaction, the
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.24 total moles of reactant is always equal to the total
93. If vapour density of certain gas is 22, then moles of the product.
possible gas(es) is/are Statement-2: During a chemical reaction, the
(1) N2O (2) CO2 total mass of reactant is always equal to the total
(3) CH4 (4) Both (1) and (2) mass of the product.

94. Match the following. Correct option is

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
Column-I Column-II
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
a. Molality (i) Mol kg–1
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
b. Mole fraction (ii) Mol L–1 (4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
c. Molarity (iii) Unitless

BOTANY
SECTION - A (4) Subcellular entities like viruses also follow the
101. Choose odd one out w.r.t. cell theory. cell theory
(1) Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann 102. Live cell was first observed and described by
(2) All living organisms are composed of cells (1) Robert Hooke (2) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
and their products (3) Rudolf Virchow (4) Robert Brown
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

103. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities (1) Extrinsic proteins are found on outer side of
in membrane only.
(a) Prokaryotic cells (2) Phospholipid tail is non-polar and composed
(b) Plants and animals cells of saturated hydrocarbons.
(c) Eukaryotic cells (3) Mammal RBC has 52% lipids and 40%
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) proteins.
(3) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) Only (c) (4) Intrinsic proteins act only as structural
104. Which one is found universally in all types of components of the membrane.
cells?
112. Choose the incorrectw.r.t. plasma membrane.
(1) Nucleus (2) Ribosomes
(1) The membrane associated lipids are mainly
(3) Mesosomes (4) Plastids
glycolipids
105. Select the incorrect statement.
(2) The proteins are like icebergs in sea of lipids
(1) The shape of the cell may vary with the
function they perform (3) It has glycolipids and glycoproteins towards
cytosolic face of the membrane
(2) Human RBC is about 7.0 µm in length
(3) Egg of ostrich is largest isolated single cell (4) It is selectively permeable
(4) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell of 0.3 µm 113. Algal cell wall is composed of
length (1) Cellulose, chitin, hemicellulose
106. A prokaryotic cell differs from eukaryotic cell in (2) NAG, galactans, mannans
(1) Possessing compartmentalisation in (3) Hemicellulose, pectin and proteins
cytoplasm
(4) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
(2) Presence of plasmid DNA
114. Select the wrong statement.
(3) Absence of polyribosomes
(1) Parenchymatous cells have primary cell wall
(4) Possessing single, circular DNA with histones
only
107. Mesosomes in a bacterial cell
(2) Plasmodesmata is living component of cell
(1) Is actually infoldings of plasma membrane wall
(2) Help in DNA replication only
(3) Addition of secondary cell wall brings about
(3) Do not contribute in cell wall formation thickening of the cell wall
(4) Are involved in cell motility (4) Adjacent cells in a plant tissue are held
108. Flagella in bacteria together by a thick non-sticky layer of middle
(1) Are composed of tubulins lamella
(2) Appear to arise as filamentous extension 115. Endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells
from cell wall includes
(3) Help in capturing food (1) All single and double membranous cell
(4) Consists of rod and rings in filament organelles
109. All of the following are not surrounded by any (2) E.R, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole
membrane, except (3) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(1) Gas vacuoles (2) Sulphur granules (4) Chloroplasts, E.R and vacuole in plant cells
(3) Phosphate granules (4) Sap vacuoles 116. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in all, except
110. Cell wall in a bacterial cell is composed of (1) Muscle contraction
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Provides precursor of enzymes for the
formation of lysosome
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Synthesis of steroids
(3) Cellulose
(4) Acrosome formation
(4) Phospholipids and pectin
117. Read the given statements and select the
111. Select thecorrect statement w.r.t. plasma correct option.
membrane.

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

A: The cis and the trans face of golgi apparatus 125. The space limited by the inner membrane of the
are entirely different and are not chloroplasts contains all, except
interconnected. (1) Thylakoids (2) Stroma lamellae
B: Golgi apparatus remains in close association (3) RuBisCO (4) 80S ribosomes
with E.R.
126. Select the incorrect statement for chromoplasts.
(1) Only statement A is incorrect.
(1) Formed from leucoplasts or chloroplasts
(2) Only statement B is incorrect.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct. (2) Contains fat insoluble pigments
carotene,xanthophylls and others.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Imparts orange colour to carrot roots.
118. Cell organelle rich in enzyme hydrolases
(1) Shows polymorphism (4) Occur in ripened tomato and chilly fruits.

(2) Is double membrane bound 127. 70S ribosomes and 80S ribosomes are dissimilar
in
(3) Is involved in protein synthesis
(4) Is formed in nucleolus (1) Ratio of RNA and protein

119. The incorrect statement for vacuoles is (2) Their function

(1) Single membranous organelle. (3) Absence or presence of membrane
(2) Contains water, sap and excretory products. (4) Being composed of two subunits
(3) Occupies upto 90% volume of the plant cell. 128. Ribosomes in an animal cell can be observed
(4) Transport of ions into the vacuole is always (a) Freely in cytoplasm
passive.
(b) In mitochondria and chloroplasts
120. Which of the following is associated with
lubrication of root tips for penetration in soil? (c) Attached with RER and nuclear membrane
(1) Sphaerosomes (2) Dictyosomes (1) Only (b)
(3) Vacuoles (4) E.R (2) Only (a) and (b)
121. The inner membrane of mitochondria (3) Only (a) and (c)
(1) Is site of TCA cycle (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Made up of proteins only 129. Microtubules in eukaryotic cells
(3) Forms cristae
(1) Form cleavage furrow
(4) Smooth and forms the continuous limiting
(2) Support plasma membrane only
boundary
122. Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells (3) Help in anaphasic movement of
are not similar in chromosomes

(1) Being regarded as semiautonomous. (4) Do not determine position of future cell plate
(2) Possessing 70S ribosomes and RNA. 130. Read the following statements and select the
(3) Presence of electron transport systems correct option.

(4) Presence of enzymes for synthesis of (A) Microfilaments help in pseudopodia formation
carbohydrates and proteins. (B) Microtubules form cilia and flagella
123. Select the odd one out for mitochondria. (C) Microfilaments form spindle fibres
(1) Is semi- autonomous organelle. (1) All A, B and C are correct
(2) Is single membrane bound
(2) Only C is incorrect
(3) Has single circular DNA
(3) Both B and C are incorrect
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place
(4) Only C is correct
124. Colourless plastids that store proteins are
131. 70S ribosomes and circular DNA molecules are
(1) Elaioplasts (2) Aleuroplasts
found in
(3) Amyloplasts (4) Chromoplasts
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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

(1) Stroma lamella of chloroplast 140. Select the incorrect statement about cell wall.
(2) Thylakoid lumen (1) Maintains shape of the cell
(3) Membranes of grana (2) Protects the cell from mechanical injury
(4) Stroma of chloroplast (3) Helps in cell to cell interaction
132. Organelle in eukaryotic cell that appears like a (4) It is living, non cellulosic in plant cells
cart wheel 141. Nuclear envelope in a nucleus
(1) Is surrounded by membrane (1) Separates nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm.
(2) Has peripheral doublets (2) Surrounds a perinuclear space of 10 – 100
(3) Has 9 + 0 arrangement nm in width.
(3) Is smooth and has ribosomes always.
(4) Has 9 + 2 arrangement
(4) Contains nuclear pore complex that control
133. Peripheral triplets in centriole are connected to
only one-way movement of substances.
central proteinaceous hub by
142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. nucleolus.
(1) Inter doublet linkers
(1) Not a membrane bound structure
(2) Radial spokes
(2) Separated from rest of the nucleoplasm by a
(3) Plasma membrane
membrane
(4) Central sheath
(3) May be larger and more numerous in cells
134. Which one is not related to centriole? actively involved in protein synthesis
(1) Give rise to spindle apparatus (4) Is site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
(2) Non membrane bound 143. Chromatin in interphase nucleus
(3) Formation of basal body of cilia (1) Is composed of DNA and basic protein
(4) Found in higher plant cells histones.
135. Eukaryotic flagella differs from cilia in all, except (2) Has approximately 2 metre long thread of
DNA and is distributed in 23 chromosomes.
(1) Size
(3) Refers to RNA and non-histone proteins only.
(2) Distribution
(4) Was first seen by Robert Hooke
(3) Number
144. Part of chromosome which prevents loss of
(4) Structure of axoneme
chromosomal segments and seals it is
SECTION - B (1) Centromere
136. Organelle containing two cylindrical structures (2) Telomere
arranged perpendicularly to each other is (3) Kinetochores
(1) Centromere (2) Telomere (4) Secondary constriction
(3) Chromosome (4) Centrosome 145. A submetacentric chromosome
137. ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation (1) Has equal p and q arms
occurs in (2) Has centromere slightly away from the middle
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria of the chromosome
(3) Nucleus (4) Cytoplasm (3) Appears J-shaped in anaphase
138. The chromosomes having centromere at terminal (4) Consists one extremely short and one very
end is called long arm
(1) Sub-metacentric (2) Metacentric 146. Which of the following is an important site for the
(3) Telocentric (4) Acrocentric formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids?

139. In a chromosome, the chromatids are held (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
together at one point called (3) Golgi bodies (4) Nucleus
(1) Telomere (2) Centriole 147. Agranular ER is involved in all, except
(3) Centromere (4) Centrosome (1) Lipid synthesis (2) Muscle contraction

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

(3) Steroid synthesis (4) ATP synthesis (3) Calcium pectate (4) Calcium carbonate
148. Which of the following type of transport across 150. When many ribosomes are associated to single
cell membrane requires energy? mRNA forming a chain, it is known as
(1) Active transport (2) Facilitated diffusion (1) Nucleoplasm (2) Centrosome
(3) Osmosis (4) Simple diffusion (3) Lysosome (4) Polysome
149. Middle lamella is mainly made up of
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Cellulose

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A (1) Alkaloid Morphine
151. Elements present in relative abundance in living
organisms than in Earth’s crust are (2) Toxin Carotenoids
(1) Carbon and calcium (3) Drug Vinblastin
(2) Hydrogen and calcium
(4) Essential oil Lemon grass oil
(3) Oxygen and carbon
(4) Carbon and sodium 157. Select the option where amino acids whose ‘R’
152. Which of the following acid is usually used to group is basic in nature are
grind living tissues for the separation of (a) Aspartate (b) Lysine
micromolecules and macromolecules?
(c) Arginine (d) Serine
(1) CH3COOH (2) Cl3CCOOH
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) C2H5COOH (4) C3H7COOH
153. Most abundant protein in the animal kingdom is (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)

(1) Elastin (2) Keratin 158. Choose the incorrect statement from the
following w.r.t. lipids.
(3) RuBisCO (4) Collagen
154. The chemical and physical properties of amino (1) Lipids could be simple fatty acids.
acids are essentially of the (2) Trihydroxypropane is a simple lipid.
(1) R functional group only (3) Oils have higher melting point than ghee.
(2) R functional group and carboxyl group only (4) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
(3) R functional group and amino group only 159. Which of the following is a phosphorylated lipid?
(4) Amino group, carboxyl group and the R
(1) Lecithin (2) Cholesterol
functional group
(3) Arachidonic acid (4) Glycerol
155. Read the following given statements and choose
the correct option. 160. How many of the following given below are
Statement I: In solutions of different pH, the proteinaceous?
structure of amino acids changes.
Albumin, Trypsin, Insulin, Antibody, Receptors,
Statement II :An amino acid may exist as GLUT-4
zwitterionic form, anionic form or cationic form
depending on the pH of the solution. (1) Four (2) Six
(1) Only statement I is correct (3) Five (4) One
(2) Only statement II is correct 161. In a polysaccharide chain such as glycogen, the
(3) Both the statements are correct right end is called the _____ and the left end is
called the ______.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks
156. Select the mismatchw.r.t. secondary metabolite
respectively.
listed and its description.
(1) Reducing end, reducing end
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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

(2) Non-reducing end, non-reducing end (1) C-terminal amino acid; N-terminal amino acid
(3) Non-reducing end, reducing end (2) N-terminal amino acid; C-terminal amino acid
(4) Reducing end, non-reducing end (3) C-terminal amino acid; C-terminal amino acid
162. Which of the following provides blue-black colour (4) N-terminal amino acid; N-terminal amino acid
with I2 solution? 169. Comprehend the given statements and select the
(1) Protein (2) DNA correct option.

(3) Glycogen (4) Starch (a) The transition state structure of the substrate
formed during an enzymatic reaction is
163. Identify the given organic compound and select transient and stable.
the correct option. (b) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the
carboxyl carbon.
(c) Ribozyme is a non-proteinaceous enzyme.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
170. B-DNA exists as double helix as explained by
(1) Triglyceride (2) Diglyceride Watson-Crick model. This helical organisation
(3) Monoglyceride (4) Cholesterol indicates
164. Compound with heterocyclic ring among following (1) Primary structure of DNA
is (2) Secondary structure of DNA
(1) Glycerol (2) Adenine (3) Tertiary structure of DNA
(3) Alanine (4) Glycine (4) Quaternary structure of DNA
165. Choose the correct statement from the following. 171. In B-DNA, the rise per base pair would be
(1) Both DNA and RNA can function as genetic (1) 3.4 Å (2) 34 Å
material
(3) 0.34 Å (4) 3.4 nm
(2) Uridylic acid and cytidylicacid are nucleosides
172. Chitin is a homopolymer, made up of monomeric
(3) Nitrogenous bases when attached to sugar units called
form nucleotides
(1) Glucosamine
(4) Nucleic acids are obtained in acid soluble
(2) N-acetyl galactosamine
fraction
(3) N-acetyl glucosamine
166. Which of the following does not represent a
polymer? (4) Galactosamine
(1) RuBisCO (2) Cellulose 173. Which of the following is not a homopolymer?
(3) Collagen (4) Palmitic acid (1) Cellulose (2) Starch
167. The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional (3) Glycogen (4) Insulin
information in a protein is revealed by which level 174. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. percentage of
of structural organisation of a protein? total cellular mass of given compounds in living
(1) Primary structure tissue?
(2) Secondary structure (1) Nucleic acids 5-7
(3) Tertiary structure
(2) Carbohydrates 3
(4) Quaternary structure
(3) Proteins 10-15
168. If a protein is imagined as a line, the left end is
represented by the first amino acid and the right (4) Lipids 1
end is represented by the last amino acid. The
first and last amino acids are represented 175. The two functional groups characteristic of
respectively by asparagine are

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Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B) RM_2023-24

(1) Hydroxyl and methyl (4) Nucleoside Uracil

(2) Amino and carboxyl
181. The saturated fatty acid among following is
(3) Carboxyl and methyl
(1) Oleic acid (2) Palmitic acid
(4) Hydroxyl and amino
(3) Linoleic acid (4) Linolenic acid
176. Which of the following is the least likely to be 182. _____ is a polymer of fructose.
involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional
tertiary structure of most proteins? Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(1) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Inulin (4) Cellulose
(2) Electrostatic interactions
183. Which of the following has carbohydrate as
(3) Hydrophobic interactions prosthetic group?
(4) Peptide bonds (1) Nucleoprotein (2) Haemoglobin
177. Choose the incorrect statement from the (3) Lipoprotein (4) Glycoprotein
following. 184. Polysaccharide ‘X’ composed of -glucose is
(1) Valine is a neutral amino acid unbranched polymer of glucose that serves as
structural elements in plant cell wall.
(2) Sucrose is a disaccharide
Select the correct option for ’X’.
(3) Inulin is a polysaccharide
(1) Cellulose (2) Chitin
(4) Haemoglobin does not exhibit quaternary (3) Starch (4) Glycogen
structure
185. Which of the following is a nitrogenous base?
178. In a double stranded DNA, 18% of the bases (1) Thiamine (2) Thymine
were shown to be cytosine. The percentage of
(3) Thymidine (4) Thymosin
the other three bases expected to be present in
this DNA are SECTION - B
(1) G 9%, A 36%, T 36% 186. How many of the following factors will affect the
(2) G 18%, A 32%, T 32% enzymatic activity?
(a) Temperature
(3) G 32%, A 18%, T 32%
(b) pH
(4) G 32%, A 32%, T 18%
(c) Change in substrate concentration
179. Non-reducing carbohydrate among following is (d) Absence of co-factors
(1) Lactose (2) Sucrose (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Glucose (4) Fructose (3) Two (4) One
180. Identify the category of compound shown in 187. The bond between two monosaccharides in a
figure below and the component ‘X’ in it. polysaccharide chain is
(1) Peptide bond (2) Ester bond
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) Glycosidic bond
188. Concanavalin Ais a/an
(1) Alkaloid (2) Terpenoid
(3) Lectin (4) Pigment
189. Category of storage polysaccharides does not
include
Category Component‘X’ (1) Inulin (2) Chitin
(3) Glycogen (4) Starch
(1) Nucleotide Uracil
190. Which of the following statement is correct?
(2) Nucleoside Thymine (1) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
(3) Nucleotide Thymine decreases the Vmax of the enzyme

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RM_2023-24 Fortnightly Test-01 (Code-B)

(2) A competitive inhibitor mostly reacts (v) Blood concentration

irreversibly with the enzyme to form an of glucose in a
enzyme-inhibitor complex normal healthy
(3) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor individual
molecule is chemically changed by the Select the correct option.
enzyme (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Competitive inhibitors are often used in the (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(v), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
control of bacterial pathogens. 196. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t.
191. Number of enzymes have non-protein aromatic amino acids.
constituents called co-factor. In these instances, (1) Tyrosine
the protein portion of the enzyme is called
(2) Proline
(1) Apoenzyme (2) Co-enzyme
(3) Phenylalanine
(3) Holoenzyme (4) Prosthetic group (4) Tryptophan
192. Enzymes which catalyse oxidoreduction between 197. Which of the following biomolecule is not present
two substrates S and S are classified under in acid insoluble pool?
category of
(1) Amino acids
(1) Ligases (2) Dehydrogenases (2) Nucleic acids
(3) Lyases (4) Transferases (3) Lipids
193. Most enzymes get damaged at high temperatures (4) Polysaccharides
above 40°C. However, enzymes such as Taq
198. Consider the statements A and B. Select the
polymerase can retain their catalytic power even
correct option.
at high temperature upto
(A) The conversion of acetic acid to cholesterol is
(1) 80–90°C (2) 140–150°C an anabolic reaction.
(3) 180–190°C (4) 200–210°C (B) Adenine and cytosine are substituted purines.
194. Zinc is a co-factor required for catalytic activity of (1) Both statements A and B are correct
proteolytic enzyme
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Amylase (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Carboxypeptidase (4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Peroxidase 199. Select the group of enzymes from the following
(4) Catalase that catalyse the linking together of 2
195. Match column-I and column-II. compounds.

Column I Column II (1) Isomerases (2) Hydrolyses

a. 4.2 – 6.1 mmol/L (i) Inhibitor for (3) Lyases (4) Ligases
mitochondrial 200. Select the incorrect match.
enzyme (1) Insulin – Hormone
cytochrome-c
oxidase (2) Ricin – Toxin
b. Competitive inhibitors (ii) Competitive (3) Collagen – Intra cellular ground
inhibitor for succinic substance
dehydrogenase
(4) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport
c. Malonate (iii) No effect on Km into cells
value
d. Cyanide (iv) Increases value of
Km for the enzymes

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